Nah, that's clearly not the case. They considered women's rights only as a very limited subset of men's as they were granted by men. When they said "mankind" or "men" they meant males. And pretty much only white, adult, property-owning men.
Women didn't get the most essential right, the right to vote, until well over 100 years later. After lots of hard fought effort and vile opposition. They weren't fully counted in the census until 1850.
There was Abigail Adams' famous letter urging her husband to Remember the Ladies in creating new laws that would prevent men from tyrannically ruling over women and treating them only as vassals. He declined
Instead, this interpretation is a retroactive attempt to justify further excluding women. John Adams and the other Founding Fathers knew that women were not equal and that "mankind" didn't include them the way it includes men. In the 60's - 70's as the push for women's rights and equality really mounted, people retrofitted a soft inclusion of women onto the earlier terms and writings, distorting what they originally intended. People, dominated by men, of course, didn't want to really have to change things or really accept women's equality, but they didn't want to appear too overtly sexist. So, they said that's what the terms meant all along, now go away women and stop bothering us.to adopt his wife’s proposed “extraordinary code of laws.”
“We have,” he wrote back wryly, “only the name of masters, and rather than give up this, which would completely subject us to the despotism of the petticoat, I hope Gen. [George] Washington and all our brave heroes would fight.”